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Re: War & Poisson distribution
Hi Anh Huy and folks,
>Do you mean
>
> 0.69^x\times e^{-0.69}/x!,
>
>ie a Poisson dist with mean 0.69, instead of
>
> P(X = x) = 0.60 x e**(-0.69) / x!?
Yes. Sorry for the typo. Boy! it is hard to pass the
eyes of a statistician :)
>Fixed rate on average? No. World population increases between 1500 and 1931
>and it becomes easier to mobilise 50000+ men, so the rate of 50000+ man war
>should increase. For 1500-1931 I don't think that this is cancelled out by
>people less likely to resort to war and by fighting war with smaller
proportions
>of the population. I think this is enough to say that the fit is a fluke
>or a fiddle.
Interesting thought!
But given the goodness of fit of the model, I can
hardly think that it is a "fiddle." Now, if the number of
new wars initiated each year is constant (as we assumed),
what does it mean? it may mean that society has a constant
level of hostility. Years ago, I read an article somewhere
which says that the number of wars ending in a given year
can also be well described by the Poisson's law. Consider
two things together, one may say that the average constancy
in which society maintains is a reflection of a wish for
changes, not for war or peace.
>Independent? The wars in WWI were related, the Prussian wars were related,
the
>Napoleonic wars were related, the Louis XIV wars were related, the Swedish
wars
>were related, etc, wars by a powerful Ming or Ching emperor were related,
>wars after the Japanese modernisation were related etc. But it is reasonable
to
>think that in the old days in any one year clusters of related wars in
different
>regions of the world are quite independent. But how reasonable?
>
>Random. Quite reasonable.
Do not you think it is contradictory (or I
misunderstand your saying): The wars were related, but were
random. I do not think they are random events, because, to
my thinking, anything that can be modelled (by whatever
law) can not be considered to be stochastic.
Cheers,
Tuan